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SCOTUS, Hilary and Same Sex MarriageFollow

#102 Mar 29 2013 at 2:59 PM Rating: Good
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I think that if a couple gets married and does not procreate within say, three years, they should be forced to adopt a child or have their marriage benefits revoked.
#103 Mar 29 2013 at 3:51 PM Rating: Good
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BrownDuck wrote:
Is Gbaji still arguing that government benefits granted to married couples exist solely for the promotion of procreation and child rearing?
Yes, but they have to be "natural" children of the couple. Adoption does not count. Susy and Sally using a third (male) party to get one (or both) preggers doesn't count.
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#104 Mar 29 2013 at 4:05 PM Rating: Default
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someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
If not that, then why do you think those benefits exist?

Kind of an economic partnership of sorts?


Which explains why the members of the partnership might want to enter into it, but I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status. That's a different question. I'm asking why a parent would pay a child an allowance, not why the allowance would benefit the child. Answer the question I'm asking.
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#105gbaji, Posted: Mar 29 2013 at 4:15 PM, Rating: Sub-Default, (Expand Post) Also (and I'm confounded why people think this), I'm not arguing it's for the promotion of procreation. The state isn't trying to encourage people to breed, but to encourage them to enter into a legally binding marriage contract prior to breeding. Why is that so hard to comprehend?
#106 Mar 29 2013 at 4:45 PM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status

Because that's what the people want; well assuming it is what they want of course.
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#107 Mar 29 2013 at 4:56 PM Rating: Good
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gbaji wrote:
If not that, then why do you think those benefits exist?

There are lots of federal laws that give benefits and responsibility to married people. There is no one reason why they passed all the different laws, or included married partners as a special group within a law. I doubt if anywhere in the historical court records though will you find that the married couple is given special status are because they are expected to make babies.
Why do you keep making this argument?!?

gbaji, would it be more practical for the federal government to simply not recognize marriage at all (versus recognizing it for only a special group)?

Edited, Mar 30th 2013 1:06am by Elinda
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#108 Mar 29 2013 at 5:06 PM Rating: Default
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someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status

Because that's what the people want; well assuming it is what they want of course.


Ok then. Why do the people vote for representatives who then pass laws, which create these benefits for those who enter into the status? And saying "cause it benefits the people in the status" isn't a good answer because there would be no reason to create the status in the first place, just give the benefits to everyone. Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?
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#109 Mar 29 2013 at 5:10 PM Rating: Good
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gbaji wrote:
someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status

Because that's what the people want; well assuming it is what they want of course.


Ok then. Why do the people vote for representatives who then pass laws, which create these benefits for those who enter into the status? And saying "cause it benefits the people in the status" isn't a good answer because there would be no reason to create the status in the first place, just give the benefits to everyone. Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

But why then would that spouse have to be of the opposite sex - why would it make a difference?




Edited, Mar 30th 2013 1:11am by Elinda
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#110 Mar 29 2013 at 5:21 PM Rating: Default
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Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
If not that, then why do you think those benefits exist?

There are lots of federal laws that give benefits and responsibility to married people. There is no one reason why they passed all the different laws, or included married partners as a special group within a law. I doubt if anywhere in the historical court records though will you find that the married couple is given special status are because they are expected to make babies.


Wanna bet? EDIT: not court records, but how about written into the law itself?

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Why do you keep making this argument?!?


Because it's my argument.

Quote:
gbaji, would it be more practical for the federal government to simply not recognize marriage at all (versus recognizing it for only a special group)?


Depends what the objective is. You are correct that if the objective is for the government to just give people things cause they're nice, we should stop doing that. I guess what I'm getting at is that I argue this issue this way because the rationale I ascribe is the only one I accept as legitimate. It's the only reason why I would be ok with the government creating such a status and the attendant benefits in the first place. Thus, only conditions which match that criteria would be considered legitimate targets for the status in my mind. You're absolutely correct that if we expand it to other groups, in my mind, there's no reason to keep the status at all.


Maybe this will explain my thinking: Imagine you and I are buying a car together. I want a car that gets good gas mileage and you want one that is blue. So we find a blue car that gets good gas mileage and both agree that we'll split the cost for the car because it fits both our needs. Then we decide we need a new car and you argue we should buy a big blue SUV because it's blue and meets your criteria. I look at the mpg and say "no way, it's a gas guzzler!". The fact that I agreed to split the cost of a blue car the last time around does not mean that I must agree to split the cost of a blue car this time around. This is because my criteria and yours are different. But it seems like whenever we talk about gay marriage, the arguments I run into are the equivalent of "but you paid for a blue car last time". Um... That's not the criteria I'm using to make the determination.

Edited, Mar 29th 2013 4:26pm by gbaji
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#111 Mar 29 2013 at 5:25 PM Rating: Default
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Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status

Because that's what the people want; well assuming it is what they want of course.


Ok then. Why do the people vote for representatives who then pass laws, which create these benefits for those who enter into the status? And saying "cause it benefits the people in the status" isn't a good answer because there would be no reason to create the status in the first place, just give the benefits to everyone. Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

But why then would that spouse have to be of the opposite sex - why would it make a difference?


You're getting ahead of the issue. Why did we allow that for spouses? What is the purpose? You're trying to leap to the "it's discrimination!" part of your argument without establishing why the thing exists in the first place.

And in case you're curious, this matters because the SCOTUS has a test for whether discrimination violates the constitution, and it rests completely on the purpose of the legislation. So if we can't say why the law exists and what it's purpose is, we kinda can't determine whether any given conditions or criteria are unconstitutional. It's never enough to say that groupA qualifies while groupB doesn't, therefore it's discrimination, therefore it's unconstitutional. Otherwise nearly all our laws would be unconstitutional on the grounds.
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#112 Mar 29 2013 at 5:29 PM Rating: Good
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gbaji wrote:
Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
I'm asking why the state would provide benefits for those who enter into the status

Because that's what the people want; well assuming it is what they want of course.


Ok then. Why do the people vote for representatives who then pass laws, which create these benefits for those who enter into the status? And saying "cause it benefits the people in the status" isn't a good answer because there would be no reason to create the status in the first place, just give the benefits to everyone. Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

But why then would that spouse have to be of the opposite sex - why would it make a difference?


You're getting ahead of the issue. Why did we allow that for spouses? What is the purpose? You're trying to leap to the "it's discrimination!" part of your argument without establishing why the thing exists in the first place.

And in case you're curious, this matters because the SCOTUS has a test for whether discrimination violates the constitution, and it rests completely on the purpose of the legislation. So if we can't say why the law exists and what it's purpose is, we kinda can't determine whether any given conditions or criteria are unconstitutional. It's never enough to say that groupA qualifies while groupB doesn't, therefore it's discrimination, therefore it's unconstitutional. Otherwise nearly all our laws would be unconstitutional on the grounds.
Smiley: lol It's clearly discrimination, that's not at question. The question is, why is the discrimination justified?

Group B only exists because you defined Group A exclusively.
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#113 Mar 29 2013 at 5:38 PM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

Good question, it seems less useful these days. So what should we do if we don't want it to work the way it used to?
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#114 Mar 29 2013 at 5:46 PM Rating: Decent
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Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

They do. Children qualify, even adopted ones who didn't benefit from the procreation encouraged by Marriage benefits. Why can't people designate any child? Oh, right, that's an idiotic fucking question I was trying to pass of as some sort of novel thought experiment that makes no sense unless I want to discriminate against children.
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#115 Mar 29 2013 at 6:23 PM Rating: Default
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Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
And in case you're curious, this matters because the SCOTUS has a test for whether discrimination violates the constitution, and it rests completely on the purpose of the legislation. So if we can't say why the law exists and what it's purpose is, we kinda can't determine whether any given conditions or criteria are unconstitutional. It's never enough to say that groupA qualifies while groupB doesn't, therefore it's discrimination, therefore it's unconstitutional. Otherwise nearly all our laws would be unconstitutional on the grounds.
Smiley: lol It's clearly discrimination, that's not at question. The question is, why is the discrimination justified?


I thought I just answered this. Discrimination is not a violation of the constitution if it meets the following test:

1. The discrimination is necessary to fulfill the purpose of the law in question.

2. The purpose of the law in question is not itself discriminatory.

Therefore, in order to determine whether there's unconstitutional discrimination, we must first determine the purpose of the law in question

Without knowing why the law exists, we can't possibly determine if it's unconstitutional to say that groupA can qualify, but groupB can't. Yet in the case of gay marriage, everyone seems to want to leap right past that important step, "prove" that it's discrimination, and therefore declare it a violation of the constitution. That's not how it works though. If it did, nearly every law on the books would be unconstitutional. All laws discriminate in some way. Speeding laws discriminate against people who drive fast. Welfare discriminates against people who earn good salaries. Handicapped parking spaces discriminate against the non-handicapped. Affirmative action discriminates against non-minorities. The list goes on and on. In each case, in order to pass constitutional muster, you must show that the law has a purpose which is not itself discriminatory, but which requires discrimination to fulfill.



So I'll ask again: What is the purpose for the state creating a legal status called marriage and attaching a set of conditions and benefits to it? Why bother? It's not like people haven't been getting married all on their own for thousands of years. So what's the reason for the state getting involved?

Edited, Mar 29th 2013 5:24pm by gbaji
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#116 Mar 29 2013 at 6:29 PM Rating: Good
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gbaji wrote:

Depends what the objective is. You are correct that if the objective is for the government to just give people things cause they're nice, we should stop doing that. I guess what I'm getting at is that I argue this issue this way because the rationale I ascribe is the only one I accept as legitimate. It's the only reason why I would be ok with the government creating such a status and the attendant benefits in the first place. Thus, only conditions which match that criteria would be considered legitimate targets for the status in my mind. You're absolutely correct that if we expand it to other groups, in my mind, there's no reason to keep the status at all.
But the status in your mind discriminates. There's no rational reason that a family unit, in order to fit into the little economic niche that we created for them by law and by practice, has to be headed by a man and a woman. You can't give one. Time and again you've failed at it.

You'd essentially be willing to write off the traditional family unit if it can't only include a family headed by a man and a woman?




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#117 Mar 29 2013 at 6:32 PM Rating: Default
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someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
Clearly, at some point, the people decided that there was some need for a spouse to receive the higher value of the social security benefits between themselves and their spouse if their spouse passes away. Why do this and not just let anyone designate someone else to qualify for their benefits if/when they die?

Good question, it seems less useful these days. So what should we do if we don't want it to work the way it used to?


Argue that we should change the social security rules. What you don't do is justify changing the marriage rules by claiming (only after the fact) that all those other things just aren't that important anyway. Um... If they're not, then what are the gay marriage folks fighting for? You get that the only thing DOMA does is prevent the federal government from recognizing gay marriage, right? So we're specifically talking about social security benefits, military survivor benefits, some pensions, pre-tax health care, and maybe a couple other things I can't remember atm.

Arguing for repeal of DOMA is arguing that gay couples should qualify for those benefits. Saying "they aren't important and should be changed anyway" is a cop out. You need to argue why those benefits should be expanded from "married couples consisting of a man and a woman, but no one else" to "married couple including any two sexes, but no one else". So why gay couples, but no one else? At the risk of repeating myself, in order to even begin to make that argument, you have to first decide why the law currently says "married couple consisting of a man and woman, but no one else", then argue that gay couples should be included because the same rationale applies to them.

You can't do that if you don't bother to do that first step.
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#118 Mar 29 2013 at 6:35 PM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
So what's the reason for the state getting involved?

Another good question. Do the historical reasons the state was involved still make sense in today's society? Enough so to warrant involvement to this degree?
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#119 Mar 29 2013 at 6:40 PM Rating: Default
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Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
You're absolutely correct that if we expand it to other groups, in my mind, there's no reason to keep the status at all.
But the status in your mind discriminates.


Yes, it does. Exactly like nearly every other law and legal status discriminates. Now tell me if the discrimination meets the criteria I wrote earlier.

Quote:
There's no rational reason that a family unit, in order to fit into the little economic niche that we created for them by law and by practice, has to be headed by a man and a woman.


Correct. There's also no reason that a family unit must qualify for a legally defined status and qualify for a set of benefits. This isn't about whether someone is a family unit, or married, or whatever else you want to talk about. It's about whether the status exist for a purpose, what the purpose is, and whether the qualifying criteria matches up with that purpose.

If our purpose is to try to encourage couples who might procreate to get married, then it makes complete sense to limit the qualifications to only couple who might procreate, right?

Quote:
You can't give one. Time and again you've failed at it.


Failed to not support an argument I'm not making. Guilty as charged!

Quote:
You'd essentially be willing to write off the traditional family unit if it can't only include a family headed by a man and a woman?


No. You've failed to understand my argument. Read what I'm writing. Don't assume I'm making any argument other than what I write.
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#120 Mar 29 2013 at 6:43 PM Rating: Default
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someproteinguy wrote:
gbaji wrote:
So what's the reason for the state getting involved?

Another good question. Do the historical reasons the state was involved still make sense in today's society? Enough so to warrant involvement to this degree?


And you're also leaping past the question to the next step instead of stopping and answering it. You seem to want to get to the answer you've already decided is the right one instead of actually taking all the steps required to get there.

In order to make that determination you'd also need to know what the purpose is. That's why I keep saying this is important.

What is the purpose of the state status? If you can't answer that, you can't really have an intelligent position on the issue of gay marriage.

Edited, Mar 29th 2013 5:47pm by gbaji
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#121 Mar 29 2013 at 6:47 PM Rating: Good
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gbaji wrote:


So I'll ask again: What is the purpose for the state creating a legal status called marriage and attaching a set of conditions and benefits to it? Why bother? It's not like people haven't been getting married all on their own for thousands of years. So what's the reason for the state getting involved?

Edited, Mar 29th 2013 5:24pm by gbaji
This has been discussed here ad naseum, but since the SCOTUS has been discussing it I'm all boned up. The states power is to regulate marriage, divorce and custody. The actually laws that govern the institution from state to state are likely as varied as bible interpretations. But clearly 'traditional' marriage has evolved.

Why are the feds hands in it? For myriad reasons. In most cases they boil down to shared finances and property, custody and ancestry. DOMA unilaterally says that only a man/woman union is appropriate in all instances.

Alito and the estate tax provision:

Quote:
Suppose we look just at the estate tax provision that’s at issue in this case, which provides specially favorable treatment to a married couple as opposed to any other individual or economic unit. What was the purpose of that? Was the purpose of that really to foster traditional marriage, or was Congress just looking for a convenient category to capture households that function as a unified economic unit?


Which do you think it is?

choose your answer carefully Smiley: sly
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#122 Mar 29 2013 at 6:49 PM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:
What is the purpose of the state status? If you can't answer that, you can't really have an intelligent position on the issue of gay marriage.

I'm saying I can't really to see a relevant reason. The reasons you've listed so far don't seem to be sufficient in my mind to keep the man+woman distinction (in the eyes of the state) without extending too two people regardless of sex, and I can't think of any good reasons on my own.

Care to help?

Really we have child tax credits already to encourage people to have kids if that's what the state wants. Birth control and the general changing of social values over the years have reduced the weight of traditional arguments for marriage. Marriage doesn't seem to last like it used to anyway. So why do we need to keep with an outdated model? If we aren't going to change it to meet our current needs why do we need the government there at all? Just make everything the equivalent of a civil union in the state's eyes?[/i]

Edited, Mar 29th 2013 6:25pm by someproteinguy
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#123 Mar 29 2013 at 7:17 PM Rating: Excellent
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someproteinguy wrote:
Good question, it seems less useful these days.

Much like this debate. Thrilling as it is to watch the same flailing Gbaji arguments over and over, it's nice to know that the debate itself is becoming increasingly obsolete.
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#124 Mar 29 2013 at 7:38 PM Rating: Default
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Elinda wrote:
gbaji wrote:
So I'll ask again: What is the purpose for the state creating a legal status called marriage and attaching a set of conditions and benefits to it? Why bother? It's not like people haven't been getting married all on their own for thousands of years. So what's the reason for the state getting involved?

This has been discussed here ad naseum, but since the SCOTUS has been discussing it I'm all boned up. The states power is to regulate marriage, divorce and custody. The actually laws that govern the institution from state to state are likely as varied as bible interpretations. But clearly 'traditional' marriage has evolved.


Which doesn't answer the question I asked. I know we've discussed it ad nauseum, but I'm still waiting for someone to tell me why the state is involved in the first place. I'm not asking for the details of the involvement, but why it's involved. What purpose does it serve?

Quote:
Why are the feds hands in it? For myriad reasons. In most cases they boil down to shared finances and property, custody and ancestry.


Again, you are answering "what", but I asked "why?". Why get involved? What was broken/missing in society that required that the state (at any level) involve itself in marriage?

Quote:
DOMA unilaterally says that only a man/woman union is appropriate in all instances.


For purposes of federally defined benefits. And what DOMA does isn't in question. Why it does it, and whether that why matches with the why of the marriage status it applies to kinda does.

Quote:
Alito and the estate tax provision:

Quote:
Suppose we look just at the estate tax provision that’s at issue in this case, which provides specially favorable treatment to a married couple as opposed to any other individual or economic unit. What was the purpose of that? Was the purpose of that really to foster traditional marriage, or was Congress just looking for a convenient category to capture households that function as a unified economic unit?


Which do you think it is?


Hard to say. It's a valid question to ask. What he's asking is whether there's some quality of "traditional marriage" (meaning a man and woman) that matches the intended purpose of the estate tax provision or was it just convenient. I happen to think, whether overtly stated or not, that it was some quality of male/female marriages which was the target. If it was just a convenient target for unified economic units, then why bother with it in the first place? It would be easier to just say that you can designate anyone as your heir and avoid taxes (in other words, eliminate the death tax). Why apply this to a spouse, but not any random person one designates?

The answer would presumably be that there's some quality or criteria for "spouse" that is not met by "any random person I designate, or a roommate". The next question becomes "what is that quality or criteria"? And that brings us back to the question of what the state is trying to accomplish with marriage. Specifically, why might we want to exempt an estate from taxation if there's a surviving spouse? If you have two people, both with equal likelihood of working, and nothing specific to their relationship which might preclude one from being able to advance their career versus the other, then there's no reason to allow one to hand their property to the other tax free than it would be for one to hand that property over tax free to any other random person they want to.

Hmm.... If the two had a child together, and were married, we can presume that one of them likely had their career opportunities impacted as a result. So it makes sense to allow them to share the fruits of the career focused spouse in terms of pension, health insurance, and estate to a degree greater than any other random friend. Surely, some could take advantage of that and get married purely for the financial benefits. A young woman marrying an elderly man in order to inherit his estate without having to pay taxes. It happens. Similarly, someone might wish to adopt a child, or otherwise becomes a single parent, and would like to define someone else as co-guardian without meeting the traditional requirements for marriage. That happens too. But do we make our rules based on the potential for exceptions, or based on the most common occurrences? I think the latter.

There's a lot more I could write on this, but that's enough, and honestly it's late on a Friday, and I want to head home. So have a nice weekend, and eat some eggs and candy! ;)

Quote:
choose your answer carefully Smiley: sly


I'm not tailoring my answer based on what Alito may have said, if that's what you're thinking. My answer is my answer. I don't need to chooses it. It's already there. My challenge is writing it out so that others understand where I'm coming from.
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#125 Mar 29 2013 at 8:20 PM Rating: Excellent
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someproteinguy wrote:
Good question, it seems less useful these days.

Much like this debate. Thrilling as it is to watch the same flailing Gbaji arguments over and over, it's nice to know that the debate itself is becoming increasingly obsolete.

I remember when I used to respond over and over and try to explain things in different ways. Now it seems like arguing with the past. No women should be allowed to vote!
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#126 Mar 29 2013 at 8:39 PM Rating: Excellent
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gbaji wrote:

There's a lot more I could write on this, but that's enough, and honestly it's late on a Friday, and I want to head home. So have a nice weekend, and eat some eggs and candy! ;)

Quote:
choose your answer carefully Smiley: sly


I'm not tailoring my answer based on what Alito may have said, if that's what you're thinking. My answer is my answer. I don't need to chooses it. It's already there. My challenge is writing it out so that others understand where I'm coming from.

Yeah, I'm sure you could write more - you have. You've given valid reasons for having an estate tax provisions for married couples, but failed to give a reason why a same sex couple should be excluded. They own homes together, share property, insure one another, raise kids together, they have their career opportunities impacted by one another, etc.........

Really gbaji, you can't rationalize this without declaring yourself a bigot. You simply refuse to acknowledge that two people of the same sex can chose to live their lives together in the very same manner that differing sexes can. Not from a purely legal standpoint. There's only religion left and homophobia left.

If anything, it would be an economic boon to allow same sex spouses all the same rights and responsibilities of opposing sex spouses. I mean, as it stands now, if a lesbian couple can't get legally married, but still has a child together, the non-birthing parent has no legal responsibility for that child. If the birth mother dies or is found unfit the other parent has no rights or responsibilities. If the couple should simply divorce, no child support needs is mandated, no visitation rights for the non-birth parent. It's ludicrous.

Let it go. Come Out if that's what you need to do and find a partner to share your life with. Straight people are not more able to contribute to the welfare of our society than gay people. White people are not better than other colors and men are not superior to women. ...and the children are all above average.

edit - i dont feel like correcting all my typos right now.




Edited, Mar 30th 2013 4:42am by Elinda
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